In historic Christianity a personal God creates man in His own image, and in such a case there is nothing that would make it nonsense to consider that He would communicate to man in verbalized form.
Why should He not communicate in verbalized form when He has made man a verbalizing being, in his thoughts as well as in communication with other men?
Having created man in His own image, why should He fail to communicate to that verbalizing being in such terms? The communication would then be three ways: God to man, and vice versa; man to man; and man to himself.
Someone may raise queries as to whether in fact such communication has taken place, but, in this field of reference, it is neither a contradictory nor a nonsense statement. Such a concept would be nonsense if one had the presupposition of a totally closed field of cause and effect.
But if you are a person who holds that cause and effect has been and is totally closed, then you need to ask if such a view as yours really stands up to all we know, and specifically whether your worldview explains why people verbalize to each other.
Why should God not communicate propositionally to the man, the verbalizing being, whom He made in such a way that we communicate propositionally to each other? (this thought con’t tomorrow 😊)
Thoughts developed and/or taken from the works of Dr. Francis A. Schaeffer, Trilogy – The God Who Is There